This article is a mess!
It states:
"Suddenly, photons were free to travel unimpeded through the cosmos as the universe instantly went from transparent to opaque. This "first light" is seen today as the CMB."
With statements like that, the article loses all credibility. Please note that the definition of "opaque" is :
"1. Blocking the passage of radiant energy and especially light"
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/opaque
Then it says:
"When the first stars formed, their intense radiation ripped electrons from neutral hydrogen once again, an event called "reionization," turning the universe dark again during an epoch known as the 'Cosmic Dark Ages."'
But, that would mean that we are
still in the "cosmic dark ages", even now with the hydrogen ionized, still. So, why could we seen anything by a white haze? Oh, maybe because the authors think "opaque" means "transparent"?!
So, what seems to be "opaque" is these continuing misstatements about how light behaved in the universe between 380,000 years after the "Big Bang" and the "cosmic dawn" when it is
thought that stars began emitting light.
Trying to get something intelligent out of the article, it seems that the CLASS radiotelescopes are looking for polarized microwaves amid the CMBR.
But, the article's statements:
" What this team specifically aims to measure with CLASS is the probability of a photon from the CMB encountering an electron ripped free of neutral hydrogen by the universe's first stars and being scattered."
However, there is no explanation of how such a random scattering process would occur in such a manner to cause an observable degree of polarization here on Earth from stars well over 13 billion light years away.
Statements like:
""Using the new common signal, we can determine how much of what we're seeing is cosmic glare from light bouncing off the hood of the Cosmic Dawn, so to speak."
This seems to portray "the Cosmic Dawn" as some sort of wall with conductive properties that would polarize reflecting light, like the automobile hood used as an analogy in the article.
But, that analogy does not seem to fit a theory where there is no "wall" at all, just light going everywhere at all angles from a phase change over an entire volume, which is the CMBR, and
maybe along with that,
unpolarized light being emitted from the first stars.
So, please provide a
cogent scientific explanation of how this theorized polarization of just the starlight and not the CMBR is conceptualized to have occurred.