no; it's as if you are trying to confuse me. That's ok, we're working out of different dictionaries. I do appreciate your comments, you seem to have spent considerable time on this.
Harry, you well know Cosmology (metaphysics) is unprovable! Don't ask me to prove my presumptions and assumptions, my picturing, my modeling, I can no more prove what must always be based upon philosophical interpretations from the intrinsically varying and contrarying (Schrodinger cat and Heisenberg uncertainties) observed micro- and macro-cosmic physics of essentially an Alice in Wonderland: Through the Looking Glass Infinite MULTIVERSE Universe than you or Cat, or Bill, or anyone else can!It's amazing
Atlan if you got it together then share it with the world.
I read thousands of scientific papers.
And I still don't get it.
Evidence is evidence.
Prove me wrong, if you can prove the BBT is correct and supported by other scientists beyond question.
Don't get me wrong I do respect your opinion.
. . . . . . the cosmic microwave background and the expansion of the Universe imply that there was an early phase of the history of the Universe which was characterized by high temperatures and high densities . . . . . . A natural question to ask then is how far back towards t = 0 can we go in understanding processes in the Universe.
. . . . . . the Friedmann equation gives a model for a radiation dominated Universe that is characterized by the scale factor having a value of zero at the instant of t = 0 . . . . . . the naive interpretation of this is that the Universe came into existence with an infinitely high temperature; the truth of the matter is that we don't really understand the physical processes in the very early Universe.
So, how early in the history of the Universe can we be confident that our physical theories really do apply? There are essentially two answers . . . . . .
The first is to say that the theories are only well tested for the ranges of physical conditions that can be explored by experiments. Thus, we have a good deal of confidence in describing the Universe at times when the particle energies were similar to the highest values that can be imparted in large accelerator experiments.
(A second approach) is to apply physical theories to conditions that never have been, and probably never will be, tested in the Earth-bound laboratory and to look for observable consequences in Nature. Clearly, this is a more speculative approach than having to rely on 'tried and tested' physical theory.
While it might be expected that physical theories could be extrapolated to describe processes at ever increasing temperatures, it turns out that there is a limit to our theoretical understanding of the processes of Nature . . . . . .
One second after the Big Bang - the universe . . . . . . continued to expand, but not as quickly as during inflation. . . . . . . The temperature of the universe was around 10^32 Kelvin. (My emphasis).
The first is to say that the theories are only well tested for the ranges of physical conditions that can be explored by experiments.
It is fair to say there simply was no time before t=0. Prior to 10^-43 second, the energy of each particle is sufficient to make it into a separate black hole. Black holes cannot communicate with each other. We have no physics to describe it.
It is also theorized that the creation of mass at t=0 is exactly balanced by the negative energy of the gravitational potential, thus conservation issues are solved.
Nature.com“Words are like harpoons,” UK physicist and astronomer Fred Hoyle told an interviewer in 1995. “Once they go in, they are very hard to pull out.” Hoyle, then 80 years old, was referring to the term Big Bang, which he had coined on 28 March 1949 to describe the origin of the Universe. Today, it is a household phrase, known to and routinely used by people who have no idea of how the Universe was born some 14 billion years ago. Ironically, Hoyle deeply disliked the idea of a Big Bang and remained, until his death in 2001, a staunch critic of mainstream Big Bang cosmology.
Several misconceptions linger concerning the origin and impact of the popular term. One is whether Hoyle introduced the nickname to ridicule or denigrate the small community of cosmologists who thought that the Universe had a violent beginning — a hypothesis that then seemed irrational. Another is that this group adopted ‘Big Bang’ eagerly, and it then migrated to other sciences and to everyday language. In reality, for decades, scientists ignored the catchy phrase, even as it spread in more-popular contexts.
The Big Bang might have been just a Big Bounce | Imperial News | Imperial College London
A new study of the early universe reveals how it could have been formed from an older collapsing universe, rather than being brand new.www.imperial.ac.uk
My comments are as I remember them! From what I've read, the concept of time does not exist prior to t=0. I also read that prior to 10E-43 s the energy of each particle was so incredibly large that their wavelength was so infinitely small it was less than the average distance between particles thus they could not communicate. It is also expressed as each particle is a tiny black hole and cannot give energy to the next particle thus no more contraction can occur. The universe was essentially one giant black hole. It did not stay a black hole very long because energy pushing out overcame the attraction. The standard Black Hole equations do not apply where there is energy pushing outward.
I think a Big Bounce makes a lot of sense except for the universe is now accelerating its expansion. So how does a contraction occur?
I may be just dumb but I do not understand this. Dividing by zero means you divide by nothing. That means you do not divide. That is no sum takes place. It does not mean infinity!Of course, division by zero gives "infinity", which is not meaningful in the real world. There is no such thing as infinite density or infinite temperature.
Dividing by zero means that the zero you are dividing by means something else besides "nothing".I may be just dumb but I do not understand this. Dividing by zero means you divide by nothing. That means you do not divide. That is no sum takes place. It does not mean infinity!
To me, dividing by an infinitely small number gives infinity. Is this just me being pedantic? Is it accepted as a loose thing to say? I am not having a go at you Cat I just find it somewhat odd
If I divide 5 by 0 (i.e. nothing) I get 5, not infinity. If I give you £5 or $5 and ask you to share it - but with no one - it doesn't go infinite.'0' is not a number in the decimal numbering system. It is half of the system of binary base2 and extending out from there, the first number of base10, base16 (0-F), and so on. Getting away from the decimal system (1-10), division by '0' works in the system for a purpose....
Learn something!If I divide 5 by 0 (i.e. nothing) I get 5, not infinity. If I give you £5 or $5 and ask you to share it - but with no one - it doesn't go infinite.
The binary system is simply This or That not nothing
1x-1=-1 yes agreed except it is minus not plus but I guess you made a typo, and 1/0 also as 1/0=1Learn something!
((+1) (-1)) = 1/0 as in:
((matter (+1)) (antimatter (-1))) = 1 (unity)/0 (null or disunity)
Learn something!
What is there in the absence of unity?! Define, pin down its makeup in and/or of the universe, what it is!1x-1=-1 yes agreed except it is minus not plus but I guess you made a typo, and 1/0 also as 1/0=1
What I do not understand is why 0=disunity except that it is the absence of unity. Am I correct?
So, 5/disunity =5 , not infinity.
Ok but it was DISunity I asked about (I supposed the absence of unity i.e. '1' therefore disunity = 0)What is there in the absence of unity?! Define, pin down its makeup in and/or of the universe, what it is!
Definition of UNITY
the quality or state of not being multiple : oneness; a definite amount taken as one or for which 1 is made to stand in calculation; identity element… See the full definitionwww.merriam-webster.com
That's good. We need mental stimulation - I fall asleep too often nowadaysUyou may not believe or understand it, but I've enjoyed our discourse so far immensely!
FWIW, I'm fine with or without quotes. It is both clear and simple what is meant either way. It is often used to help delineate science from pseudoscience, or metaphysics.However, t = 0 is such a convenient shorthand, that it is now common practice to use it to separate "the act" from BBT. I try to differentiate by putting it in quotes "t = 0". Would you find this acceptable, kept in context?
Any respected peer-reviewed papers on that? If CERN physicists make it clear that their equations completely fail for suggested conditions of the universe prior to t = 1E-12 sec., then don't expect any real science for t=0. Suppositions aren't uncommon, of course."It is also theorized that the creation of mass at t=0 is exactly balanced by the negative energy of the gravitational potential, thus conservation issues are solved."
After the CMBR discovery, which killed the Steady State theory, only Hoyle and I think Bondi, were the only holdouts against the BBT.I understand the suggestion, but, personally, I cannot see it as any improvement over the ludicrous BB itself. Let's be honest, Fred Hoyle intended it as derogatory!