The speed of light and time dilation seem to be connected in many texts. In these texts, is time dilation actually infinite at the speed of light, or is this just a reference used for simplification?
If time dilation actually occurs with the speed of an object relative to an observer, why do we not assume that light itself doesn't undergo time dilation effects?
When looking into deep space, we see objects that are billions of LY away. Usually this is followed by a statement similar to, we are seeing these objects as they were, billions of years ago.
But if light experienced time dilation, wouldn't that light reach our instruments in zero time?
If time dilation actually occurs with the speed of an object relative to an observer, why do we not assume that light itself doesn't undergo time dilation effects?
When looking into deep space, we see objects that are billions of LY away. Usually this is followed by a statement similar to, we are seeing these objects as they were, billions of years ago.
But if light experienced time dilation, wouldn't that light reach our instruments in zero time?
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