spork":2qomg78k said:
wick07":2qomg78k said:
In the static case, the thrust will be equal to the force required to turn the propeller Assuming a static case:
F1 = m * (V1 -V2)
or in other words with 'F1' power I can accelerate a mass of air 'm' from V1 to V2.
Hmmm... you've lost me a bit here. The force required to turn the prop would be expressed as a torque. That torque multiplied by the rotation rate would give power_in. Power_out / power_in = prop efficiency. Power_out is also equal to thrust * free stream velocity. That's how we could compute thrust from the torque required to turn the prop.
This was part of my simplification. To keep the math easier I took some shortcuts:
1) I assumed a 100% efficient system (unrealistic, but I'm just trying to establish if this is even possible; if it can't be done in an ideal system it will be impossible in a realistic one). Therefore I concluded that all power created by the wheels would have to be turned into thrust by the prop.
2) Since the mass of air I am moving is constant the trust will be proportional to the difference between the apparent air velocity at the input of the system and the apparent air velocity at the output of the system.
Spork":2qomg78k said:
Wick07":2qomg78k said:
Now, lets assume Vt is a wind blowing AGAINST the propeller output. Our Vo = V2 + Vt in this case. So now our equation looks like:
F2 = M * (V1 – (V2 + Vt))...
I'm getting further lost. What is Vo? Also, except for the case of the cart going less than wind speed, there is no wind blowing against the prop output. The prop is immersed in a fluid that's moving (the wind). Props are typically analyzed down to the static condition. It's hard to find prop data for the reverse flow condition (i.e. our cart below windspeed).
That's probably because I messed up my signs. Let's do this over again shall we. Here are the variables I am going to use:
Pa = Power available from the generator attached to the wheels. This is constant for a given speed.
F1 = The thrust created when there is NO TAILWIND.
F2 = The thrust created when their is A TAILWIND.
Vi = Air velocity on the input side of the prop system.
Vo = Air velocity at the output side of the prop system.
Vt = True tailwind velocity.
Assuming an ideal prop, the thrust created by the prop will be equivalent to the power used to turn the prop. No loss.
First the NO TAILWIND case:
F1 = m * (Vi - Vo)
Pa = F1
There will be no net forces on the system, at best we can achieve equilibrium.
Second the TRUE TAILWIND case:
Vi = Vi (The prop blocks the tailwind from interfering in the input airflow)
Vo = Vo - Vt (The true Tailwind is blowing into the prop, decreasing the output air velocity)
F2 = m * (Vi - (Vo - Vt)) (The thrust created by the prop)
F2 > F1
In the TAILWIND case the thrust created is greater than in the NO TAILWIND Case.
The power available however, has nothing to due with true or relative winds. The power available is related to the speed of the cart (which hasn't changed), not the wind speed.
If I have increased thrust because of a tailwind, that means I need less input power to the prop to achieve the same thrust as was achieved in the NO TAILWIND case. But I still have the same power available.
This means I have excess power in the TAILWIND case! I will end up accelerating!
My top speed will now be limited by my ability to utilize this excess power. The more efficient I make my machine, the higher the possible speed. This has become an engineering problem. Note that this is not perpetual motion. As we get faster and faster, the tailwind effect will decrease. At some point the internal resistance of the system will overwhelm it and we will have reached an effective no-tailwind condition. At that point the system will be in equilibrium again.
Despite this derivation, my gut tells me this is inherently wrong (I know, you did this in the real world so it must work). Which is why I want someone to double-check my logic.