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dmjspace
Guest
bonzelite said: <font color="yellow"> the thing is, why, then is only the southern pole seemingly magnetically active, even if it is fossilized? </font><br /><br />Yes, that is the question. The key for any theory is its ability to predict future observation. I do not believe the "standard" model predicted a magnetic field clinging to Mars' southern hemisphere. Correct me if I'm wrong here.<br /><br />There is no doubt that the standard model is able to find a way to explain things after they're observed, but usually only by incorporating new variables and complicating the model.<br /><br />The EPH, on the other hand, predicts that one half of Mars (the southern one--the one which got plastered with debris) will be covered with randomly strewn debris, some of which must be magnetized. It also predicts that Mars' former magnetic field was literally blown away in one catastrophic incident. The EPH explains a lot of other observations relating to Mars' spin, its crustal dichomoty, its vastly divergent hemispheric cratering, etc.<br /><br /><font color="yellow"> would it be because of subsurface ice and sand at northern latitudes is thicker and more prevalent, thus less likely to magnetize -- versus more widely abundant subsurface bedrock and surface highland rock at the south? </font><br /><br />I'm not sure. It would be interesting to see if adherents to the standard model thought of this before the observation occurred.<br /><br /><font color="yellow"> this unavoidably makes me think of Enceladus and it's own active southern hemisphere and pole. why is that world, too, active on it's southern pole only? is this coincidence or a pattern of something? </font><br /><br />It is interesting. Enceladus is pretty embedded in Saturn's magnetic field, whereas Mars is all by its lonesome. The dynamics might not be comparable. Where have you seen that Enceladus has its own magnetic field concentrated in its southern half?